🎯 Practice Q&A
Mixed exam-style questions across all PMP topics. Read each question, think of your answer, then reveal.
60
Questions
10
Topics
3
Difficulty levels
Scenario-based
Formula questions
Trick questions
Click to reveal answers
Basics
Scope
Schedule
Cost & EVM
Risk
Quality
Communication
Integration
Leadership
Agile
Mixed — Exam Style
1. Project Basics & Process Groups
Easy Q1. A project manager is newly assigned to a project. What is the FIRST thing they should do?
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Answer
Develop the Project Charter and identify stakeholders. A PM always plans before executing. Never jump straight into work. The Charter authorises the project and gives the PM formal authority. Stakeholder identification happens immediately after.
Easy Q2. Which is a project? A) Processing daily insurance claims B) Building a new hospital wing
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Answer
B — Building a new hospital wing. It is temporary (it will end when the wing is built) and unique (a specific, one-time construction). Processing daily insurance claims is repetitive and ongoing — that is Operations, not a project.
Medium Q3. A team member identifies a defect during testing and fixes it. Which process group is this?
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Answer
Executing. The defect is identified in Monitoring & Controlling — but the actual fixing (Defect Repair / Corrective Action) is implemented in Executing. This distinction appears frequently in the exam.
📌 Key rule: Corrective and preventive actions are IDENTIFIED in Monitoring, IMPLEMENTED in Executing.
Easy Q4. The PM is obtaining formal sign-off from the client on the completed project. Which process group is this?
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Answer
Closing. Formal acceptance, final sign-off, closing contracts, releasing the team, and archiving lessons learned all happen in the Closing process group.
Hard Q5. A project is running smoothly. The PM spends 80% of their time communicating with stakeholders, resolving conflicts, and ensuring resources are available. Which process group is most active?
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Answer
Executing. Team conflict, motivation, managing stakeholders, ensuring work gets done — these are all Executing activities. Studies show PMs spend up to 90% of their time communicating, and most of that happens during Executing.
2. Scope Management
Easy Q6. What are the three documents that make up the Scope Baseline?
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Answer
Scope Statement + WBS + WBS Dictionary. All three together form the Scope Baseline. Not just the WBS. Not just the Scope Statement. All three, always.
Medium Q7. The client keeps requesting small additions during execution without formal approval. What is happening and what should the PM do?
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Answer
Scope Creep — uncontrolled expansion of project scope. The PM must enforce the formal change control process. Every addition — no matter how small — must be logged as a change request, impact-analysed, and approved by the CCB before implementation.
Medium Q8. What is the difference between Validate Scope and Control Quality?
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Answer
Control Quality = PM inspects the deliverable to ensure it meets quality standards (did we build it correctly?). Validate Scope = Customer formally accepts the deliverable (is this what you wanted?). Quality control happens FIRST, then scope validation.
Hard Q9. A group of experts provide opinions anonymously through several rounds until they reach consensus. What technique is this and what is it used for?
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Answer
Delphi Technique — used in Collect Requirements. The anonymity prevents groupthink and peer pressure. Experts give input without knowing who else said what, and the rounds continue until consensus emerges. Key triggers: “anonymous,” “multiple rounds,” “expert consensus.”
3. Schedule Management
Easy Q10. Activities on the critical path have how much float?
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Answer
Zero float (zero slack). Activities on the critical path cannot be delayed at all without delaying the project end date. Zero float = critical path activity.
Medium Q11. The project is behind schedule and the budget is already at its limit. What is the only schedule compression option available?
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Answer
Fast Tracking. Crashing requires adding resources which increases cost — not an option when budget is maxed. Fast Tracking overlaps sequential tasks and costs nothing extra (though it increases risk of rework).
Medium Q12. O = 4, M = 8, P = 18. What is the PERT expected duration and standard deviation?
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Answer
E = (4 + 4×8 + 18) ÷ 6 = (4 + 32 + 18) ÷ 6 = 54 ÷ 6 = 9 days.
SD = (18 − 4) ÷ 6 = 14 ÷ 6 = 2.33 days.
At 68% confidence: 9 ± 2.33 = 6.67 to 11.33 days.
SD = (18 − 4) ÷ 6 = 14 ÷ 6 = 2.33 days.
At 68% confidence: 9 ± 2.33 = 6.67 to 11.33 days.
📌 Always multiply M by 4 first, then add O and P, then divide by 6.
Hard Q13. A developer is assigned to two tasks at the same time. The PM shifts one task later using available float without changing the project end date. What technique is this?
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Answer
Resource Smoothing. The key clue is “using available float” and “without changing the project end date.” Resource Leveling would also fix the conflict but may delay the project. Resource Smoothing works within float constraints — no schedule delay.
4. Cost Management & EVM
Easy Q14. CPI = 0.85. What does this mean in plain English?
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Answer
The project is over budget. For every ₹1 spent, only ₹0.85 worth of work is being delivered. The team is spending more than the value they are producing. CPI <1 is always over budget.
Medium Q15. BAC = ₹1,20,000. Duration = 12 months. 6 months elapsed. 55% work done. AC = ₹60,000. Calculate CPI and SPI.
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Answer
Step 1 — EV: 55% × ₹1,20,000 = ₹66,000
Step 2 — PV: 6÷12 = 50%. PV = 50% × ₹1,20,000 = ₹60,000
CPI = ₹66,000 ÷ ₹60,000 = 1.10 → Under budget ✅
SPI = ₹66,000 ÷ ₹60,000 = 1.10 → Ahead of schedule ✅
Both CPI and SPI above 1 — the project is in excellent shape.
Step 2 — PV: 6÷12 = 50%. PV = 50% × ₹1,20,000 = ₹60,000
CPI = ₹66,000 ÷ ₹60,000 = 1.10 → Under budget ✅
SPI = ₹66,000 ÷ ₹60,000 = 1.10 → Ahead of schedule ✅
Both CPI and SPI above 1 — the project is in excellent shape.
Medium Q16. BAC = ₹80,000. CPI = 0.9. What is the EAC, and what does it tell you?
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Answer
EAC = BAC ÷ CPI = ₹80,000 ÷ 0.9 = ₹88,889. This means the project is expected to cost approximately ₹88,889 by the time it finishes — ₹8,889 more than the original budget. The project is projected to finish over budget if current efficiency continues.
Hard Q17. An unexpected regulatory change disrupts the project. Which reserve covers this and who approves its use?
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Answer
Management Reserve — for unknown, unanticipated events. Approved and controlled by senior management, not the PM. The PM must request management’s approval to access it. Contingency Reserve is only for known, identified risks that the PM planned for.
5. Risk Management
Easy Q18. A PM buys insurance for a critical component of the project. Which risk response strategy is this?
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Answer
Transfer. Insurance shifts the financial impact of the risk to a third party. The risk still exists — but if it occurs, the insurance company pays. Outsourcing a risky activity via a fixed-price contract is also Transfer.
Medium Q19. After the PM applies a risk response, a new risk appears that didn’t exist before. What is this called?
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Answer
Secondary Risk. A secondary risk is created by the risk response itself. The PM hired a new vendor to avoid an unreliable one — but now there is a risk the new vendor lacks experience. That new risk is secondary and must also be managed.
📌 Residual Risk = risk remaining AFTER the response. Secondary Risk = new risk CREATED BY the response. Different things.
Medium Q20. There is a 35% chance that a key vendor will be late, causing ₹4,00,000 in losses. What is the EMV?
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Answer
EMV = 0.35 × −₹4,00,000 = −₹1,40,000. Threats carry a negative sign. This means the project has ₹1,40,000 of risk exposure from this single threat. This value informs how much contingency reserve to set aside for it.
Hard Q21. The PM decides to assign extra senior resources to a task to guarantee an early delivery bonus will be achieved. Which opportunity strategy is this?
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Answer
Exploit. The PM is taking deliberate action to ensure the opportunity definitely happens — removing uncertainty. Exploit = guarantee the opportunity. Compare with Enhance, which only increases the probability but doesn’t guarantee it. Key trigger: “make sure it happens” = Exploit.
6. Quality Management
Easy Q22. The PM is auditing whether the team is following the correct quality processes. Which quality process is this?
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Answer
Manage Quality — auditing PROCESSES during Executing. The focus is on HOW work is done. Control Quality inspects the actual DELIVERABLES during Monitoring & Controlling.
Medium Q23. The team adds animation effects to the deliverable that the client never requested and that weren’t in the scope. What is this and what should the PM do?
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Answer
Gold Plating. The PM should stop it immediately. Any addition to scope — even a seemingly beneficial one — must go through formal change control first. Gold plating wastes time, may introduce defects, and sets unrealistic expectations.
Medium Q24. A defect found by the customer after delivery is the most expensive type of quality cost. What category is this?
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Answer
External Failure Cost — part of the Cost of Non-Conformance. It is always the most expensive because it includes warranty claims, reputation damage, and potential legal liability. The order cheapest to most expensive: Prevention → Appraisal → Internal Failure → External Failure.
7. Communication & Stakeholder Management
Easy Q25. A project team has 10 members. How many communication channels are there?
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Answer
10 × 9 ÷ 2 = 45 channels. Formula: n(n-1)÷2. Always multiply n by (n-1) first, then divide by 2.
Medium Q26. Team grew from 7 to 11 members. How many NEW communication channels were added?
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Answer
Old channels: 7×6÷2 = 21. New channels: 11×10÷2 = 55. New channels added: 55 − 21 = 34 new channels. Adding just 4 people more than doubled the communication complexity.
Hard Q27. A key department head is resistant to the project and has high authority over resources. What is the BEST approach?
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Answer
Engage directly — Manage Closely. A high-power resistant stakeholder is one of the biggest threats to a project. The PM must meet with them, understand their specific concerns, and work to address them. Never ignore, avoid, or bypass a resistant stakeholder with high power — this is consistently the wrong answer in PMP.
8. Integration Management
Easy Q28. Who creates the Project Charter and what does it do?
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Answer
The Project Sponsor creates and signs the Project Charter. It formally authorises the project to begin and gives the PM authority to use organisational resources. Created in the Initiating process group. The PM is named in it but does not write it.
Medium Q29. A PM receives raw data showing “Task A is 60% complete, ₹30,000 spent.” What type of information is this and what comes next?
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Answer
Work Performance Data — raw, unanalysed facts collected during Executing. Next, this data is analysed and compared to the plan in Monitoring & Controlling to produce Work Performance Information (e.g., “CPI = 0.92, project is over budget”). Finally it becomes a Work Performance Report shared with stakeholders.
9. Leadership, Resource & Procurement
Easy Q30. Two team members are in a heated conflict over technical direction. What is the BEST approach for the PM?
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Answer
Collaborate / Problem-Solve. Work with both parties to find a win-win solution. This is almost always the correct PMP answer for conflict — unless the question specifically describes a crisis requiring an immediate decision, in which case Force/Direct may apply.
Medium Q31. A company promotes its best engineer to Project Manager because of their technical excellence. What risk does this illustrate?
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Answer
The Halo Effect. Being technically excellent does not make someone an effective Project Manager. PM requires interpersonal skills, communication, stakeholder management, and leadership — not just technical knowledge. This is one of the most common and costly resource management mistakes.
Medium Q32. The project involves highly uncertain R&D work. Which contract type is most appropriate?
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Answer
Cost Plus. When scope is highly uncertain — especially in research — Cost Plus is appropriate. The buyer reimburses all actual costs plus a fee. The buyer accepts the cost risk because nobody can predict what the work will cost upfront.
10. Agile & Hybrid
Easy Q33. In Agile, a stakeholder requests a new feature mid-sprint. What is the correct process?
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Answer
Log it in the Product Backlog → Product Owner reviews and reprioritises → team picks it in a future sprint. There is no CCB in Agile. Changes go through the Product Owner, not a formal change control board. Mid-sprint additions don’t interrupt the current sprint.
Medium Q34. Does Agile completely ignore documentation and planning? Explain.
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Answer
No. The Agile Manifesto says “Working Software over Comprehensive Documentation” — but both sides have value. Agile values the left side MORE, not exclusively. Documentation and planning still happen in Agile — just less of it and more adaptively. This is one of the most common exam misconceptions.
Hard Q35. What is the difference between velocity and cycle time in Agile?
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Answer
Velocity = story points completed per sprint by the whole team. Used to forecast future sprint capacity.
Cycle Time = time to complete ONE task from start to finish. Measures individual task efficiency. Shorter cycle time = faster task delivery. They measure different things — team throughput vs individual task speed.
Cycle Time = time to complete ONE task from start to finish. Measures individual task efficiency. Shorter cycle time = faster task delivery. They measure different things — team throughput vs individual task speed.
11. Mixed — Exam Style Questions
These questions combine multiple topics — just like the real exam. Think carefully before revealing.
Hard Q36. The PM is told to reduce project duration but cannot increase the budget. Testing and development are currently sequential. What is the BEST option?
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Answer
Fast Tracking — overlap testing and development so they run in parallel. No extra cost. Risk of rework increases, but it is the only schedule compression technique that doesn’t increase cost. Crashing would require adding resources and is not an option here.
Hard Q37. A senior executive has high power but low interest in the project details. How should the PM manage them?
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Answer
Keep Satisfied. High Power + Low Interest = Keep Satisfied. Provide high-level executive summaries and key decisions. Do not overload them with operational detail. Keep them happy and supportive without wasting their time or yours.
Hard Q38. The team is highly productive, self-managing, and requires minimal direction. Which Tuckman stage is this and what should the PM do?
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Answer
Performing stage. The team has reached peak productivity and is largely self-directed. The PM’s role here is to Delegate — step back, empower the team, and focus on removing obstacles rather than directing work. Micromanaging a Performing team is counterproductive.
Hard Q39. BAC = ₹2,00,000. EV = ₹90,000. AC = ₹1,00,000. What is TCPI and what does it mean?
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Answer
TCPI = (BAC − EV) ÷ (BAC − AC) = (₹2,00,000 − ₹90,000) ÷ (₹2,00,000 − ₹1,00,000) = ₹1,10,000 ÷ ₹1,00,000 = 1.10.
TCPI >1 means the team must work more efficiently in the remaining work than they have been — 10% more efficiently — just to finish within the original budget.
TCPI >1 means the team must work more efficiently in the remaining work than they have been — 10% more efficiently — just to finish within the original budget.
Hard Q40. A PM applied a mitigation response to a risk. The risk probability dropped from 70% to 20%, but a 20% chance still remains. What is the remaining 20% called?
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Answer
Residual Risk. The risk remaining after a response is applied is called residual risk. It could not be fully eliminated. The PM must still monitor it, and a contingency plan may be needed for the residual portion. Residual risk is different from secondary risk — which is a NEW risk created BY the response.
Hard Q41. Increasing employee salaries did not improve team performance. The PM then gave team members more challenging tasks and public recognition for achievements. Performance improved significantly. Which theory explains this?
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Answer
Herzberg’s Two-Factor Theory. Salary is a hygiene factor — it prevents dissatisfaction but doesn’t motivate. Challenging work and recognition are motivators — they drive actual performance improvement. This is the exact scenario Herzberg’s theory was built to explain.
Hard Q42. The PM must request resources from department heads, has limited authority, and cannot make unilateral decisions about team assignments. What type of organisational structure is this?
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Answer
Functional Organisation. In a functional structure, the PM has low authority and must negotiate with functional managers (IT head, finance head etc.) to get resources. The PM acts more as a coordinator than a commander. Projectised = full PM authority. Matrix = shared authority.
Hard Q43. During project execution the PM notices the team is consistently completing 15% more work than planned each sprint, but the cost per sprint is 10% above budget. What do CPI and SPI tell us?
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Answer
SPI >1 (ahead of schedule — 15% more work done than planned). CPI <1 (over budget — spending 10% more than the value delivered). The project is moving fast but spending too much. The PM needs to focus on cost control — not schedule acceleration.
Hard Q44. A PMO provides templates, best practices, and guidance to project teams but does not enforce standards or directly manage projects. What type of PMO is this?
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Answer
Supportive PMO. Low control — provides guidance and support but does not mandate. Controlling PMO enforces standards (medium control). Directive PMO directly manages projects (high control). Memory: Supportive = suggests. Controlling = checks. Directive = decides.
Hard Q45. The project scope, schedule, and cost baselines have all been approved. A change is requested. What MUST happen before the change is implemented?
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Answer
The PM must: (1) Analyse the full impact across scope, schedule, cost, risk, and quality. (2) Submit a formal Change Request. (3) Get CCB approval. (4) Update the PM Plan and baselines. THEN implement. Never implement before CCB approval. Never submit without impact analysis.
✅ Practice Q&A complete. 45 questions across all 10 knowledge areas with worked calculations, exam tips, and plain-English explanations. Use the Quick Revise page for last-minute revision, and these Q&A for self-testing your readiness.